| I have sold some shares in India to a party without going through a broker. |
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| Written by Administrator | |||||||
| Thursday, 07 August 2008 13:17 | |||||||
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Question: I have sold some shares in India to a party without going through a broker. To determine whether the shares were long-term, I would like to know the date of sale which should be considered for the purpose. - Piyush Shah, Sharjah Answer: Where there is a contract of sale of shares by agreement, it is the date of the contract which should be treated as the date of transfer for purposes of capital gains tax, subject only to the condition that there should have been a subsequent delivery of shares. The Income-tax Appellate Tribunal in Max Telecom Ventures Limited v C.I.T. held so, while pointing out that the Board Circular No. 704 dated April 28, 1995 (213 I.T.R. (St.) 7) has also set out the law accordingly. Source kt
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